A few days ago
Gorgeous

Is this sentence grammatically correct?

Having signed this form, it is supposed that married women have their spouses’ concurrence.

-Is it correct to use “it” here?

Top 7 Answers
A few days ago
Cap’n Zeemboo

Favorite Answer

No, because the opening phrase needs to modify “married women.” Instead, it’s modifying “it.”

“Having signed this form, married women are assumed to have received their spouses’ concurrence.”

Or, a little less clunky:

“Married women who have signed this form are assumed to have received their spouses’ concurrence.”

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A few days ago
gehme
“It” isn’t used in reference to people, and some person are persons are supposing.

“By signing this form, married woman indicate that they have their spouses’ concurrence.” Or “Married women who sign this form indicate that they have their spouses’ concurrence.” Writing the statement like this keeps the focus entirely on the people who’re signing the form.

You could say “Married women who sign this form are assumed to have their spouses’ concurrence.” This is grammatically correct, but the passive voice “are assumed” again begs the question, who is assuming? The context may answer, but use the active voice if this is writing where style matters. If it’s an application or something like that, the second may be preferable.

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A few days ago
Greg C
It IS grammatically correct, but it’s neither preferred nor elegant.

“it is supposed” is passive. An active voice like “we assume” or “married participants must have their spouses’ agreement” would be better here.

If you’re writing this, think about what you mean and find a way to use active voice; It’s generally much less convoluted and more understandable. It’s also preferred now to say “married persons” or “married people” rather than the more old-fashioned “married women.”

To address another point, the it in “IT is supposed” does NOT modify any word in the sentence. It does indirectly need to match the number of the “supposed” which is singular. That’s the tricky thing with passive voice.

Two examples:

“It is assumed that…”

“It is requested…”

Again, the IT matches the number of the “assumed” and “requested” which is always singular.

A better way to state it would be:

“We assume that…”

“I request…”

Then the pronoun matches the plurality of the real subject.

Hope this helps!

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A few days ago
pescados_fuera_del_agua
No. I think it would be better to rewrite it this way: “It is supposed that married women, having signed this form, have their spouses’ concurrence.” This way, it is clear that the clause “having signed this form” refers to women, not to “it.”

Or you can also try: “It is supposed (or assumed) that married women who sign this form have their spouses’ concurrence.”

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A few days ago
BiteSizedWaffle
I’m not sure about the “it,” but im pretty sure “having signed this form” needs to be a clause relating to married women so it should be something like “having signed this form, married women ……”
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A few days ago
jurydoc
No, that would imply that “it” signed the form. Whatever comes after the introductory phrase, “Having signed this form” needs to be who signed the form.
1

A few days ago
enigma22
yes, because “it” was refering 2 d FORM… and from is a non living thing so it canot be addressed as he or she…. hehe, hop im correct
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