Are these two sentences grammatically correct?
Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, if there is no love in me, I am become a sounding brass or a tinkling cymbal.
It is St. Paul’s words.
The second is
But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
by Tony Warren.
Can we say “i am become” or “is come”?
Favorite Answer
In French, verbs that speak of state (to be, to seem, to become, to move, to come, to go, etc) take the helper verb “etre” (to be) to form the past tense:
Je suis arrivé: I have arrived (literally “I AM arrived”).
English took this rule to heart, especially for erudite writing, such as English translations of the Bible. So, one gets “I am become” rather than “I have become”.
This usage has fallen by the wayside, but to say it is incorrect is to say that the use of “thee” and “thou” in the Bible is also incorrect. It’s not incorrect, just archaic.
Hope this helps.
Though I speak with the tongue of an angel, if there is no love in me, then I am but a loud trumpet or a crashing cymbal.
the other should read,
But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part shall be complete.
Note the use of the present perfect in both cases.
BUT could you imagine talking like that now. Specially in our country with our multi-cultured society. People would have a good laugh though, which wouldn’t be so bad. Lord knows, we all could use a good laugh!
JUST DON’T TALK LIKE THAT IN A JOB INTERVIEW
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